1. Modern
capacitors which have high capacitance in small size use a dielectric of
(A) paper (B) rubber (C) ceramic (D) Mylar
2. The Maximum
spectral response of the germanium and silicon is in the
(A) infrared
region (B) ultraviolet region (C) visible region (D) x-ray region
3. For an insulating material, dielectric strength and
dielectric loss should be respectively
(A) high and
high (B) low and high (C) high and low (D) low and low.
4. In a distortion factor meter, the filter at the front end
is used suppress
(A) odd
harmonics (B) even harmonics (C) fundamental component (D) dc component
5. The coefficient of coupling between two air core coils
depends on
(A) mutual
inductance between two coils only (B)
self inductances of the two coils only
(C) mutual inductance
and self inductances of the two
coils (D) none
6. For a parallel plate capacitor which is being charged out of the following the
incorrect statement is
(A) Energy
stored in the capacitor does not enter it through the connecting wire through
the space around
the
wires and plates of capacitor.
(B) Rate at
which energy flows into this volume is equal to the integration of the poynting
vector over the boundary
of the
volume between the plates.
(C) The
poynting vector points everywhere radially outward of the volume between
plates.
(D) The
poynting vector points everywhere radially
in to the volume between the plates.
7. The presence of alkali oxides in alumino silicate
ceramics is likely to result in dielectric breakdown due to
(A)
Polarization (B) Conductivity (C) Structural homogeneties (D) Ionization
8. Which of the following will serve as a donor impurity in silion
(A) Boron (B) Indium (C) Germanium (D) Antimony
9. Electrical contact materials used in switches, brushes
and relays must possess
(A) high
thermal conductivity and high melting point
(B) Low thermal conductivity and low melting point
(C) High
thermal conductivity and low melting point
(D) Low thermal conductivity and high melting point.
10. An SCR can only be turned off via it's
(A)
cathode (B) anode (C) gates
(D) none
11. Gold is often diffused into silicon PN junction devices
to
(A) increase
the recombination rate (B) reduce the
recombination rate
(C) make
silicon a direct gap semiconductor (D)
make silicon semi-metal
12 With n nodes and b branches a network will have
(A) (b+n)
links (B) b - n +1 links (C) b -n-1 links (D) b + n + 1 links
13. When a network has 10 nodes and 17 branches in all then
the number of node pair voltages would be
(A) 7 (B) 9
(C) 10 (D) 45
14. In any atom the potential energy of an orbiting electron
is
(A) always
positive (B) always negative
(C) sometime
positive, sometime negative (D)
numerically less then its kinetic energy.
15. A delition MOSFET differs from a JFET in the sense that
it has no
(A) channel (B) gate
(C) P-N junctions (D) substrate
16. The advantage of a semiconductor strain gauge cover the
wire round strain guage is that
(A) it is more
sensitive (B) it is more linear (C) it is less temperature dependent (D) it's cost is low
17. Barrier potential in a P-N junction is caused by
(A) thermally
generated electrons and holes (B)
diffusion of majority carriers across the junction
(C) migration
of minority carriers across the junction
(D) flow of drift current.
18. When an NPN transistor is properly biased then most of
the electrons from the emitter
(A) recombine
with holes in the base (B) recombine
in the emitter itself
(C) pass
through the base to the collector (D)
are stopped by the junction barrier
19. The deplition voltage for silicon diode at m0 bias is
(A) 0.5
volt (B) 0.3 volt (C) 0.7 volt (D) 1.1 volt
20. A UJT can
(A) be
triggered by any one of it's three terminals
(B) not be triggered
(C) be
triggered by two of its three terminal only
(D) be triggered by all of its
terminals only.
21. The energy of electric field due to a spherical charge
distribution of radius r and inform charge density in vacuum is
22. Maxwells divergence equation for the magnetic field is
given by
__ __ __ __
A.
▼* B = 0 B.
▼ . B = 0
__ __ __ __
C. ▼* B = p D.
▼ . B = p
23. When a short grounded vertical antenna has a length L
which is 0.05 1 at frequency f and if it's radiation resistances
at f is R Ohms,
then its radiation resistance at a frequency 2f will be
(A) R/2
ohms (B) R ohms (C) 2R ohms (D) 4R ohms
24.In a cylindrical cavity resonator, the two modes which
are degenerate would include
(A) TE111 and
TM111 (B) TE011 and TM011 (C) TE022 and TM111 (D) TE111 and TM011
25. When an antenna of input resistance 73 ohm is connected
to a 50-ohm line and if the losses are ignored then its
efficiency will
be nearly
(A) 0.19 (B) 0.81
(C) 0.97 (D) 1.19
26.The transformer utilization factor of full wave bridge
rectifier is
(A) 0.812 (B) 0.286
(C) 0.693 (D) 0.782
27. When a dominant mode wave guide not terminated in its
characteristic impedance is excited with a 10 GHZ signal
then if d is
the distance between two successive minima of the standing wave in the guide
then
(A) d = 1.5
cm (B) d is less then 1.5 cm (C) d is greater then 1.5 cm (D) d = 3cm
28. A two port network having a 6 dB loss will give
(A) an output
power which is one - quarter of the input power (B) an output power which is one -
half of
the input power
(C) an
output voltage which is 0.707 of the
input voltage. (D) an output power
which is 0.707
of the
input power.
29. While transporting a sensitive galvanometer
(A) the
terminals are kept shorted (B)
critical damping resistance is connected across the terminals
(C) the
terminals are kept open circuited (D)
it does not matter as to what is connected across the terminals.
30. A T type attenuator is designed for an attenuation of 40
dB and terminating resistance of 75 ohms.
Which of the
following values represent full series arm R1 and shunt arm R2?
1.R1 = 147
Ω 2. R1 = 153 Ω 3. R1 = 1.5 Ω 4. R1=
3750 Ω
(A) 1 and
3 (B) 1 and 4 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 2 and 4
31. For a transmission line, the characteristic impedance
with inductance 0.294 µH/m and
capacitance 60pF/m is
(A) 49 Ω (B) 60 Ω
(C) 70 Ω (D) 140 Ω
32. When the graph of a network has six branches with three
tree branches then the minimum number
of equations
required for the solution of the network is
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5
33. Consider the following statement for a 2-port network
1. Z11 =Z22
2. h12 = h21 3.Y12 = -Y21 4.BC - AD = -1
then the
network is reciprocal if and only if
(A) 1 and 2
are correct (B) 2 and 3 are
correct (C) 3 and 4 are correct (D) 4 alone is correct.
34. As a network contains only independent current sources
and resistors then if the values of all
resistors are
doubled then the values of the node voltages are
(A) will
become half (B) will remain
unchanged
(C) will
become double (D) cannot be determined
unless the circuit configuration and the values
of the resistors are known.
35. A iron cored choke is a
(A) Linear and
active device (B) Non linear and passive device
(C) Active device only (D) Linear
device only
36. Poynting vector wattmeter is based on
(A) Seebeck
effect (B) Ferranti effect (C) Induction effect (D) Hall effect
37. Which one of the following is not a transducer in the
true sense?
(A)
Thermocouple (B) Piezoelectric
pick-up (C) Photo voltaic cell (D) LCD.
38. The term used to denote a static device that converts ac
to dc, de to ac, dc to dc or ac to ac is
(A) Converter
system (B) Inverter (C) Chopper (D) Thyristor
39. When a dipole antenna of 1/8 length has an equivalent
total resistance of 1.5 Watt then the
efficiency of
the antenna is
(A)
0.89159% (B) 8.9159% (C) 89.159% (D) 891.59%
40. In commercial FM broadcasting, the maximum frequency
deviation is normally
(A) 5 KHz (B) 15 KHz (C) 75 KHz (D) 200 KHz
41. Weins bridge is used for measurement of frequency in the
applied voltage waveform is measurement
of frequency in
the applied voltage waveform is
(A)sinusoidal (B) square (C) rectangular (D) triangular
42.Strain gauge is
(A) not a
transducer (B) an active
transducer (C) not an electronic
instrument
43.A high Q coil has
(A) large band
width (B) high losses (C) low losses (D) flat response
44. In the case of an instrument reading of 8.3 V with a 0
to 150 voltmeter having a guaranteed accuracy of
1% full scale
reading, the percentage limiting error is
(A)
1.810% (B) 0.181% (C)12.45%
(D) 0.0018%
45. The 'h' parameter equivalent circuit of a junction
transistor is valid for
(A) High
frequency, large signal operation (B)
High frequency, small signal operation
(C) Low frequency,
large
signal operation.
46. A system is causal if the output of any time depends
only on
(A) Values of
input in the past and in the future
(B) Values of input at that time and in the past
(C) Values of input at that time and in the
future (D) none
47. Form the hot metal surface electrons escape because
(A) of change
of state from metal to gas due to heat.
(B) of change of state from gas to metal
(C) the energy
supplied is greater than the work function
(D) the energy is greater than Fermi level
48. The most common device used for detection in radio
receivers is
(A)
amplifier (B) triode (C) diode
(D) transistor
49. In a full wave rectifier the negative point in a circuit
is
(A)
cathode (B) anode (C) The central tap on the high voltage
secondary (D) plate.
50.Negative feedback amplifier has a signal corrupted by
noise as its input. The amplifier will
(A) Amplify
the noise as much as the signal (B)
Reduce the noise (C) Increase the noise
(D) Not
effect the noise
PART - II
51. It is an unidirectional device that blocks the current
flow from cathode to anode
(A) SCR (B) PCR
(C) VCR (D) DCR
52. An ideal constant current source is connected in series
with an ideal constant voltage source. Considering together
the combination
will be a
(A) constant
voltage source (B)constant current
source
(C) constant
voltage and a constant current source or a constant power source. (D) resistance
53. Anode current in an thyristor is made up of
(A) electrons
only (B) electrons or holes (C) electrons and holes (D) holes only
54. For a pulse transformer, the material used for its core
and the possible turn ration from primary to secondary are
respectively
(A) ferrite :
20 : 1 (B) laminated iron : 1 :1 (C) ferrite : 1 : 1 (D) powered iron : 1: 1
55. A converter which can operate in both 3 pulse and 6
pulse mode is a
(A) 1 phase full
converter (B) 3 phase half wave
converter (C) 3 phase semi
converter (D) 3 phase full converter.
56. A single phase CSI has capacitor C as the load. For a constant source current, the voltage
across the capacitor is
(A) square
wave (B) triangular wave (C) step function (D) pulsed wave
57. a single phase full wave midpoint thyristor converter
uses a 230/200V transformer with centre tap
on the secondary
side. The P.I.V per thyristor is
(A) 100V (B)141.4V
(C)200V (D)282.8V
58. In dc choppers for chopping period T, the output voltage
can be controlled by FM by varying
(A) T keeping
Ton constant (B) Ton keeping T
constant
(C) Toff keeping T constant (D) None of the above
59.An ideal power supply consist of
(A) Very small
output resistance (B) Zero Internal
resistance
(C) Very large
input resistance (D) Very large output
resistance
60. The linearity error for a digital input is indicated by
(A) ξ (B) γ
(C) η (D) ε
61. In the 8421 BCD code the decimal number 125 is written
as
(A)
1111101 (B) 0001 0010 0101 (C) 7D
(D) None of the bove
62. Match the given feedback circuit with its proper
nomenclatures
(A) Current
series feedback (B) Current shunt
feedback
(C) Voltage
series feedback (D) Voltage shunt
feedback
63. Class A amplifier is used when
(A) No phase
inversion is required (B) Highest
voltage gain is required
(C) dc
voltages are to be amplified (D)
Minimum distortion is desired.
64. Identity the correct match for the given transister
(A)
Enhancement type P channel MOSFET (B)
Depletion type N channel MOSFET
(C)
Enhancement type N channel MOSFET (D)
Depletion type P channel MOSFET
65. In case a signal band limited to fermimeter is sampled
at a rate less than 2 fermimeter, the constructed signal will be
(A)
Distortionless (B) Small in
amplitude (C) Having higher
frequencies suppressed (D) Distorted
66.IC which has quad 2 input AND gates
(A) 7411 (B) 7404
(C)7400 (D) 7408
67. Registers in which data is entered or taken out in
serial form are referred as
(A) left shift
register (B) right shift register (C) shift registers (D) none of the above
68. The expression ABC can be simplified to
__ __ __
A. A
B C B.
AB+BC+CA
__
__ __ __
C. AB+ C C. A + B + C
69. Read the following
(i) Routh
Herwitz's criterion is in time domain
(ii)Root locus
plot is in time domain
(iii) Bode
plot is in frequency domain
(iv) Nyquist
criterion is in frequency domain.
(A) 2,3 and 4
are correct (B) 1,2 and 3 are
correct (C) 3 and 4 are correct (D) all four are correct
70. Register and counters are similar in the sense that they
both
(A) count
pulses (B) store binary operation (C) shift operation
(C) made from
an array of flip flops and gates integrated on a single chip.
71. In D/A converter, the resolution required is 50mv and
the total maximum input is 10v. The number of
bits required is
(A) 7 (B) 8
(C) 9 (D) 200
72. On different unit impulse function results in
(A) Unit
parabolic function (B) Unit
triplet (C) Unit doublet (D) Unit ramp function
73. ........... watt of power is received from sun per m2
surface area of a geosynchronous satellite
(A) 100 (B) 500
(C) 2000 (D) 1000
74. The ripple factor in an LC filter.
(A) Increases
with the load current (B) Increases
with the load resistance
(C) Remains
constant with the load current (D)
Has the lowest value
75. In different parts of the country identical telephone
numbers are distinguished by their
(A) Language
digits (B) Access digits (C) Area codes (D) Central office codes
76.Amplitude modulation is used for broadcasting because
(A) it is move
noise immune than other modulation systems
(B) compared
with other systems it requires less transmitting power
(C) its use
avoids receiver complexity
(D) no other
modulation system can provide the necessary bandwidth for high fidelity.
77. The maximum phase shift that can be provided by a lead
compensator with transfer function.
1+6S
G0(S) =
______
1+2S
(A) 15o (B) 45o
(C) 30o (D) 60o
78. The correct sequence of steps required to improve system
stability is
(A) Insert
derivative action, use negative feedback, reduce gain
(B) Reduce gain,
use negative feedback, insert derivative action
(C) Reduce gain,
insert derivative action, use negative feedback
(D) Use negative
feedback, reduce gain, insert derivative action,
79. Identity slope change at w = 10 of the magnitude v/s
frequency characteristic of a unity feedback system with the
following
open-loop transfer function.
A -80 dB/dec to -60 dB/dec B
40 dB/dec to 20 dB/dec
C 20 dB/dec to -40 dB/dec D
40 dB/dec to -20 dB/dec
80. In the feedback control system the loop transfer
function is given by
K
G(s)H(s)=
_____________
S(s+2)(s2+2s+2) Number of
asymptotes of its root loci is
A. 1
B. 2 C. 3
D. 4
81. In a closed - loop transfer function
G(s) 2600 k(s+25)
____ = _____________________________
H(s) s4+125s3+5100s2+65000s+65000 k
A.
±j228 B. ±j2.28 C. ±j1.14
D. j114
82. Considering the following statement : In a magic tee
1. the collinear
arms are isolated from each other
2. one of the
collinear is isolated from the E-arm
3. one of the
collinear arm is isolated from the H-arm
4. E-arm and H-arm
are isolated from each other. Of these statements
(A) 1 and 2
are correct (B) 1 and 3 are
correct (C) 1 and 4 are correct (D) 2 and 3 are correct.
83. In 1965 first geostationary satellite was launched
called
(A) ANIK (B) EARLY BIRD (Intel sat - 1) (C) WESTAR (D)MOLNIYA
84. When A = 0., B = 0, C = 1 then in two input logic gate
we get gate
(A) XOR gate (B) AND gate (C) NAND gate (D) NOR gate
85. In a radio receiver the IF amplifier
(A) is tuned above
the stations incoming frequency (B)
amplifies the output of local oscillator
(C) is fixed tuned
to one particular frequency (D) can be
tuned to various isolate frequencies
86. A duplexer is used to
(A) Couple two
antennas to a transmitter without interference
(B) isolate the antenna
from the local oscillator
(C) prevent
interference between two antennas connected to a receiver
(D) use an antenna
for reception or transmission without interference.
87. Boolean algebra is based on
(A) numbers (B) logic
(C) truth (D) symbols
88. The amplifiers following the modulated stage in a low
level modulation AM system be
(A) linear
amplifier (B) harmonic generators (C) class C power amplifiers (D) class
untuned amplifiers
89. In a radar system maximum unambiguous range depends on
(A) maximum power
of the transmitter (B) pulse
repetition frequency
(C) width of the
transmitted pulse (D) sensitivity of
the radar receiver.
90. In composite video waveform the function of the
serrations, is to
(A) equalize the
charge in the integrator before the start of vertical retrace
(B) help vertical
synchronization (D) simplify the
generation of the vertical sync pulse
91. The frequency range 30MHz - 300MHz is
(A) medium
frequency (B) very high frequency (C) super high frequency (D) Infrared frequency
92. Which wave cannot exist inside wave guide
(A) TE (B) TM
(C) TEM (D) HE
93.Ionosphere layer of earth is situated at
(A) upto 18 kms
from earth (B) from 18 to 70 km (C) 70 to 500 km (D) above 500km
94. A two cavity klystron tube is a
(A) velocity
modulated tube (B) frequency modulated
tube
(C) Amplitude
modulated tube (D) simple triode
95. As the thermal noise get doubled due to the increase in
a resistance the noise power get.
(A) doubled (B) quadruped (C) unchanged (D) halved.
96.Which one is a cross field tube
(A) Klystron (B) Reflex Klystron (C) Magnetron (D) TWT
97. The degree of coupling depends
(A) size of
hole (B) location of holes (C) size and location of holes (D) not depend on size or location of hole
98. The thermal noise depends on
(A) direct current
through device
(B) resistive
component of resistance
(C) reactive
component of impedance
(D) load to
connected.
99. The charge on a hole is
(A) 1.6 x
10-9 (B) 1.6 x 10-19 (C) 1.6 x 101 (D) 1.6 x 1020
100. Intel's 8085 microprocessor chip contains
(A) seven 8 bit
registers (B) 8 seven bits
registers (C) seven 7 bit
registers (D) eight 8 bit registers.
PART III
101. The words Satyameva Jayathe' have been taken from
(A) Vedas (B) Bhagavad Gita (C) Mundaka Upanishada (D) Mahabharatha (E) None of these
102.Which of the following countries was the first to
develop a neutron bomb?
(A) USA (B) USSR
(C) China (D) Pakistan
103. "Kathakali" dance is connected with
(A) Kerala (B) Rajastan (C) Uttar pradesh (D) Tamil Nadu
104. The term "Ashes" is associated with
(A) Hockey (B) Cricket (C) Soccer (D) None of these.
105. The Kailash Temple at Ellora is a specimen of
(A) Gupta
architecture (B) Rashtrakutlas architecture (C) Chalukya architecture (D) Chola
architecture
106. When the two Houses of Parliament differ regarding a
Bill then the controversy is solved by
(A) Joint sitting
of the two Houses
(B) President of
India
(C) Prime Minister
of India
(D) BY a special
committee for the purpose
107. Which of the following is not work of kalidasa?
(A) Meghdood (B) Reghuvansha (C) Sariputra Prakarma (D) Ritushamhara
108. Amir Khusro was
the famous poet and aesthete of
(A) Akbar the
Grest (B) Mahmud Ghaznvi (C) Snah Jahan (D) Alauddin Khilji
109. With the beginings of space travel, we entered a new
(A) Era of great
history (B) List (C) Book
(D) Year
110. An though it mourns the death of someone, need not be
sad.
(A) Funny
poem (B) Newspaper article (C) Othodox talk (D) Elegy
111. If stare is glance so gulp is
(A) Sip (B) Tell
(C) Salk (D) Admire
112. He hardly works means
(A) The work is
hard (B) He is hard (C) The work is easy (D) He work very little.
113. Give the opposite word for pulchritude
(A) antipathy (B) unsightliness (C) inexperience (D) languor
114. Nanometre is ....................... part of metre
(A) MIllionth (B) Ten Millionth (C) Billionth (D) Ten billionth
115. Malaria affects
(A) Liver (B) Spleen (C) Intestine (D) Lungs
116. Sindhu Rakshak is a /an
A) Aircraft
carrier (B) Submarine (C) Multiple purpose fighter (D) Anti-aircraft gun
117. With which subject is " Dada Saheb Phalke
Award" associated.
(A) Best film
director
(B) Best
musician
(C) Best
documentary
(D) Best work
relating to promotion of Indian film industry
118. Who developed the branch of mathematics known as
Calculus?
(A) Arybhatta (B) Newton (C) Einstein (D) Archimedes
119. In which state in Kanha Part situated?
(A) M.P (B) U.P
(C) Assam (D) W.Bengal
120. Which day is observed as Human Rights Day?
(A) 24th
October (B) 4th July (C) 8th Auguest (D) 10th December
